Loading presentation...

Present Remotely

Send the link below via email or IM


Present to your audience

Start remote presentation

  • Invited audience members will follow you as you navigate and present
  • People invited to a presentation do not need a Prezi account
  • This link expires 10 minutes after you close the presentation
  • A maximum of 30 users can follow your presentation
  • Learn more about this feature in our knowledge base article

Do you really want to delete this prezi?

Neither you, nor the coeditors you shared it with will be able to recover it again.


Was the Spanish Conquest Genocide?

By: Rachel Coyle

Rachel Coyle

on 12 February 2013

Comments (0)

Please log in to add your comment.

Report abuse

Transcript of Was the Spanish Conquest Genocide?

By: Rachel Coyle Was the Spanish Conquest Genocide Genocide, What is it? Genocide is the deliberate destruction of a certain
ethnic, religious or racial group of people by
either killing them, forcing them into slavery,
preventing births or depriving them of their
economic needs. The spanish Conquest The Spanish Conquest of the New World brought the destruction of the Native Americans. They murdered many Indians and enslaved them as well. I believe the Spanish Conquest was genocide because they deliberately killed members of the group, causing serious bodily and mental harm and inflicting on a group, conditions of life to bring apart their destruction. Did They Deliberately Kill Members of the Group? In 1520, after being worked hard in the mines by conquistador, Hernando Cortes, the Aztecs retaliated and fought for their rights. However, the Spaniards struck back and destroyed the entire Aztec culture in 1521. The war between Cortes, his men and the Aztecs was started intentionally. Cortes went against the formal wishes and permission, to destroy the entire Aztec culture and population. Although many had died of disease, he still murdered an estimated amount of 300, 000 natives.
With a small army and big ambitions, Francisco Pizarro cleared the entire Inca Empire. They were no match for his advanced technology such as gun powder and cannons, and they too perished under the forceful hands of the Spanish conquistador. I believe that this was genocide because Did the spanish cause serious bodily or mental harm , or deliberately inflict conditions of harm that was calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part? Before deliberately murdering groups of Aztecs, many were first enslaved by Hernando Cortes. This would bring harm intentionally to the Aztec peoples, therefore falling under the category of a genocide. Repartimiento was a system in Spanish America allowing Indians to be recruited into forced labor given definite form in 1575. This was genocide because 15% of a single Indian was district was forced to labor in mines or agricultural word that provided goods. No rules had been applied allowing the colonists to brutally treat the Natives anyway they would like. Encomienda was a system defined in 1503, coming from encomendar (to entrust), Encomienda granted a soldier, conquistador or official with a particular group of Indians in an area to control. Slave owners would own land and completely gain control of all Native American slaves living there. The Indians were given no choice, rights or freedom and this caused many of them serious bodily or mental harm, as many were worked to death. Is there any other evidence of genocide?
Full transcript